A client has proposed the following scenarios:
Scenario 1:
Company A will operate a business.
The SMSF member will work for that business and be one of two directors.
50% of company A would be owned by the SMSF member's own company (Company B) and 50% of Company A will be owned by an unrelated company (Company C).
The SMSF will own minority shares in company B.
Is it correct to say the SMSF's investment in company B is an in-house asset, given company B is owned and controlled by the SMSF member?
Scenario 2:
Company A will operate a business.
The SMSF member will work for that business and be one of two directors. Company A ownership: 30% SMSF member's own company 20% SMSF itself 50% Unrelated party
Is it correct to say that in scenario 2, this is not an in-house asset or breach of sole purpose test?
Hi Jason
Re scenario 1 Company B is an in-house asset as it is 60% owned by the member.
An in-house asset is an investment in a related party. A related party includes a Part 8 associate of a member. Refer section 70B of SIS that includes a Part 8 associate of an individual where "a company that is sufficiently influenced by, or in which a majority voting interest is held".
Re scenario 2 yes if 50% or less of the company are owned or controlled by the SMSF / member / part 8 associates that would mean it is not an in-house asset. Please refer sections 71 to 85 of SIS that cover the in-house asset rules.
Thanks
The Auditors Institute