The ruling states if it is over 50% of the shares, it will be classified as in-house asset. Here, this case it has 50% of the shares of this company not over 50%; and the total value of the investment is 21% of the SMSF asset. Can this investment be treated as in -house asset?
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Hi Rohan,
That means it is not an in house asset in this case, correct?
Thanks in advance.
Jennifer